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Baltic Way 2018 · Problem 19

Number Theory

An infinite set BB consisting of positive integers has the following property. For each a,b∈Ba, b \in B with a>ba>b the number a−b(a,b)\frac{a-b}{(a, b)} belongs to BB. Prove that BB contains all positive integers. Here (a,b)(a, b) is the greatest common divisor of numbers aa and bb.

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Topics

GCD and LCM · Divisibility and factorization

Solutions

Solution

If dd is g.c.d. of all the numbers in set BB, let A={b/d:b∈B}A=\{b / d: b \in B\}. Then for each a,b∈A(a>b)a, b \in A(a>b) we have

a−bd(a,b)∈A\frac{a-b}{d(a, b)} \in A

Observe that g.c.d of the set AA equals 1 , therefore we can find a finite subset A1∈AA_{1} \in A for which the gcd⁡A1=1\operatorname{gcd} A_{1}=1. We may think that the sum of elements of A1A_{1} is minimal possible. Choose numbers a,b∈A1(a>b)a, b \in A_{1}(a>b) and replace aa in the set A1A_{1} with a−bd(a,b)\frac{a-b}{d(a, b)}. The g.c.d. of the obtained set equals 1 . But the sum of numbers decreases by this operations that contradicts minimality of A1A_{1}.

Thus, A1={1}A_{1}=\{1\}. Therefore all the numbers in the set AA have residue 1 modulo dd. Take an arbitrary a=kd+1∈Aa=k d+1 \in A and b=1b=1. Then k∈Ak \in A by (∗)(*) and hence k=ds+1k=d s+1. But (k,kd+1)=1(k, k d+1)=1, therefore kd+1−ds−1d=k−s=(d−1)s+1∈A\frac{k d+1-d s-1}{d}=k-s=(d-1) s+1 \in A, so ss is divisible by dd. But s∈As \in A, therefore s−1s-1 is also divisible by dd, hence d=1d=1 (that means that B=AB=A ). Thus we have checked that if a=kd+1=k+1∈Aa=k d+1=k+1 \in A then a−1=k∈Aa-1=k \in A. Then all non-negative integers belong to AA because it is infinite.

Contest context

Results from Baltic Way 2018

11 teams

Mean score
3.8 / 5
Scores of 4 or 5
7 / 11
Estonia
5 / 5

Score distribution

01
11
20
32
40
57
All team scores
TeamScore
Germany5 / 5
St. Petersburg5 / 5
Denmark5 / 5
Estonia5 / 5
Sweden5 / 5
Norway5 / 5
Lithuania5 / 5
Finland3 / 5
Latvia3 / 5
Poland0 / 5
Iceland1 / 5